Re: Trivial and trivium

Am Mon, 19 Jun 2006 08:32:49 +0300 schrieb Jukka K. Korpela:

Joachim Pense <snob@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> scripsit:

I think the point of the question was that the attribution of
current-meaning "trivial" to the Trivium happened only in the
Renaissance, not in the Middle Ages.

Besides, the
question actually asked whether the word "trivial" _acquired_ its current
meaning during the Renaissance.


That's what I mean.

Joachim
.

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