Re: Plausibility Check

In article <1155535587.796662.284210@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"Franz Gnaedinger" <frgn@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

Nathan Sanders wrote:

I already tried that. You responded with nonsense, non-answers, and
non sequiturs. You are incapable of answering a straightforward
question with a direct, relevant, coherent, sound answer. Probably
due in no small part to your insistence on writing with your teeth.

Writing with my teeth ??

Re: PH vs. F. Your memory isn't that bad, is it?

You quoted one line, snipped
the rest, and instead of providing arguments you spoutet
invectives.

Not every time; only after about the twentieth time of your refusing
to directly answer questions. (Not just recently, but throughout your
unfortunate intrusion in sci.lang)

Either quote my answer, or give an accurate
summary.

Accurate summary: Nonsense, non-answers, and non sequiturs.

Then you can point out the flaws of my answer
using arguments, not invectives.

The flaw is that your answer wasn't an answer to the question I asked.
I asked "when", you answered with "how". I asked about A in general,
you answered about PAD specifically. I asked for a scientific
prediction, you gave nothing scientific nor predictive.

Your way of discussing
is below the scientific level.

As if you knew anything about science! You don't even comprehend the
fundamental components of science.

I give my answer again,
not for you but for interested readers who may find my
message later on in the archive.

Phonetic laws, I find, have a limited range of applicability,
and lead to the paradox effect that early, very early words

Magdalenian is not "very, very early", nitwit! You're talking about a
possible language that existed within the most recent 10-20% of the
entire existence of human language. Calling Magdalenian "very, very
early" is like calling the 1980s "very, very early" American history!

I propose words of two and three letters and follow their

You still refuse to learn the difference between writing and speaking.

Hint: Magdalenians did not have letters because they had no writing
system.

changes through time by means of a method I invented
and developed myself:

If *you* "invented" it, then why would the Magdalenians have used it
20,000 years earlier?

by mouthing the words, by
pronouncing them silently, without giving voice, not

You still refuse to learn what "voice" is.

You arrogant insistence on continuing to use your own incorrect,
idiosyncratic meanings for established terminology, even after being
corrected multiple times, gives you even less credibility, if that
were at all possible.

Why father in English and Vater
in German? Vather in English were too close to water,
while German Wasser is at a safe distance from Vater,
so the P of ancient Greek pataer and Latin pater could
soften only to F in English while to V in German. P, F
and V are not only a question of inherent phonology but
also of phonetical neighbors in the verbal morphospace.

If it weren't obvious before, the above makes it abundantly clear that
you know absolutely nothing about historical linguistics.

Nathan

--
Nathan Sanders
Linguistics Program
Williams College
http://wso.williams.edu/~nsanders/

--
Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com

.

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