Re: ``Whom'' rule
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 21 Sep 2006 15:47:06 -0700
bulkington63 wrote:
Ron Hardin wrote:
bulkington63 wrote:
Ron Hardin wrote:
Wretchard blogs
Ideologies are a simple way to understand everything. What to like,
who to hate; whom to believe, what to doubt.
If he intends to use 'whom', it should be 'whom to hate, whom to
believe'
Well but that's the point. He picks ``who'' to avoid pedanticism. The
natural language wants ``who.''
If he's trying to avoid being pedantic then he wouldn't use 'whom' at
all. Isn't it possible that he made a mistake and didn't realize that
it should be "whom to hate"? What is the "natural language"?
It also wants, however, ``whom'' for ``whom to believe.'' The question is,
why?
Maybe it's you. I find nothing wrong with "who to hate, who to
believe". If you're going to use 'whom', you need to do correctly and
consistently, which he doesn't.
On a more stylistic point, I would either use 'what' throughout or
'who(m)'. He's obviously contrasting the verbs like/hate and
believe/doubt. By changing pronouns, I think he loses the effect.
There's no point in trying to confuse Ron Hardin with facts. We've been
trying to find out for years what his native language is (it clearly
isn't the English spoken in Ohio, where he dwells). If you like this
sort of thing, just look him up in the sci.lang archives -- but don't
bother responding!
Non-finite verbs have objective case subjects, by the way. Same as Latin.
--
Ron Hardin
rhhardin@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
On the internet, nobody knows you're a jerk.
.
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