Re: Why does English have so few compound words?
- From: "ranjit_mathews@xxxxxxxxx" <ranjit_mathews@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 16 Nov 2006 08:04:51 -0800
Brian M. Scott wrote:
On 15 Nov 2006 08:34:23 -0800, "ranjit_mathews@xxxxxxxxx"
<ranjit_mathews@xxxxxxxxx> wrote :
(It seems that Old Norse had a fricative terminal r like
Turkish does today).
Where it wasn't assimilated or lost, PGmc. *z became some
sort of palatal fricative transcribed /R/, which became /r/
around 900-1100.
In the case of fjord, the terminal r ultimately became d.
/R/ must have been palatal, since it
caused I-umlaut, but its exact nature isn't known.
What is the pair of languages here?
http://www.hi.is/~eybjorn/ugm/skindex/thorm1.html
13. Kent hefr fjörs hvé frændum
folkhneitir skal veita
dýrr, þó at drengi væri
dylgjusamt at fylgja ;
þægs, frák Þórgeir eiga,
þau eru orð komin norðan
handar grjóts frá hreyti,
hug þanns við mun brugðit.
13. Kennt hefr fjörr, hvé frændum
folkhneitir skal veita
dýrr, þó at drengi væri
dylgjusamt at fylgja ;
þreks frák Þórgeir eiga
- þau eru orð komin norðan
handargrjóts frá hreyti -
hug, þanns við mun brugðit.
.
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