Re: Difference between semivowel and consonant

14 Dec 2006 14:29:29 -0800: "Peter T. Daniels"
<grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:


Ruud Harmsen wrote:
Thu, 14 Dec 2006 11:34:53 -0500: Nathan Sanders
<nsanders@xxxxxxxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:

Some linguists, especially Americans, use [y] to mean IPA [j], with
[j] having no consistent meaning.

Don't tell PTD about that. He wouldn't believe you. How could anything
have been achieved if that were true?

Apparently you aren't aware that Americanist <j> for [dZ] bears a
hachek. <j> alone is not used in phonological transcriptions --
precisely because Germans would misinterpret it.

J without a hacek is often used in transcriptions of Arabic. And in
that context, I think it is convenient and clear.

--
Ruud Harmsen - http://rudhar.com
.

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