Re: Articles

On 21 Dec 2006 11:57:04 -0800, Jake
<Jake.Pentland@xxxxxxxxx> wrote in
<news:1166731024.055245.209190@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
in sci.lang:

When I was looking up things on the internet about Latin
and Sanskrit, I noticed that none of the languages
contained the definite or indefinite article. However,
French, German, Dutch, English, and, I assume, many other
modern indo-european languages, contain the definite and
indefinite articles. Where did the articles come from,

Definite articles are frequently from demonstrative
pronouns. The French definite article, for instance, is
from Latin <ille>. English <the> is from the Old English
demonstrative pronoun <se> (masculine), which became <þe>
under the influence of neuter <þæt>; the OE dem. pron. was
itself from a PIE dem. pron. The Greek definite article is
from that same PIE dem. pron.

In the Germanic and Romance languages, at least, indefinite
articles come from words for 'one'.

and when did they come into the indo-european languages?

As you can see, it varies.

Did proto-indo-european lack articles?

It seems likely.

If so, did the articles enter the languages as the
declensions system eroded and as the word order became
less fluid, meaning that articles had to be used to
increase the power of expression?

Not necessarily: Greek would appear to be a counterexample.
So is Old Norse, which had a postposed definite article --
<-inn> in the masc. nom. sing. -- that developed from the
dem. pron. <hinn>.

Brian
.

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