Re: "Have" as perfective auxilliary in various languages
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 24 Feb 2007 15:49:53 -0800
On Feb 24, 4:20 pm, "PaulSchrum" <paul.sch...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
I have noticed that perfect tense in German and French use "have" as
auxilliary as English does. I have been wondering if this tendency is
"universal" among languages which use auxilliary verbs for the perfect
or whether it is just a coincidence among the three languages that I
know a little bit about.
[Preemptive yeah-I-know's:]
- Many motion related verbs in French use etre as the past and perfect
auxilliary.
- My knowledge of German is way limited, and for all I know there
could be many exceptions to using haben as the perfect auxilliary that
I am clueless about. If my comments warrant correction on this point,
please be kind.
What you want is a textbook on "grammaticalization."
Berndt Heine is one of the authors of a World Lexicon of
Grammaticalization (or something like that), which might tell you how
widespread such uses of such verbs are.
Remember, not many languages have actual verbs that mean 'have'.
.
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