Re: "Have" as perfective auxilliary in various languages



Thank you to Prai Jei, Helmut Richter and Peter T. Daniels for yor
responses.

I consulted Bernd Heine's _World Lexicon of Grammaticalization_ and it
does discuss Perfect and Perfective. I was not able to make much out
of it. For example, in the sentence (p 231) "The periphrastic
resultative/perfect construction ('have' or 'be' + past participle) of
Germanic and Romance languages, for example, has occasionally extended
its use to marking past tense . . . " I am not precisely sure what he
means by "periphrastic resultative/perfect".

On the whole, though I think the answer to my question is that the
phenomena is limited to Romance and Germanic languages while Swahili
is noteworthy in that it uses "be".

Again, thank you everyone.


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