Re: How does Armenian fit into the Indo-European family?

On Mar 10, 7:37 pm, "Darkstar" <darkstar...@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
The change from *dva to _erk_ is perfectly regular.

In what way? I see no regularity here. It might be regular. But the
fact is Anatolian parallels are much closer. I wonder if this somehow
sets Armenian aside from other IE languages.

Peter T. Daniels wrote:
On Mar 10, 7:46 am, "Darkstar" <darkstar...@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
Hi, everyone! Long time no see.

How in the world is Armenian supposed to fit into the IE family?
Cf. /mek/ -*/oynos/, /yerku/ - */duwo/, /yerek/ -*/treyes/.
What's that stuff about comparing Armenian to the Hellenic group? Are
there any other theories concerning its origin?

The change from *dva to _erk_ is perfectly regular.

In what way? I see no regularity here.

I think you'll find it's *dw > er and *s > ku (or is it just /k/?),
with the protoform being more like *dwo:s. A better fit is obtained
if you assumed that PIE has *sW, a labialised sibilant, a hypothesis
associated for purely historical reasons with the glottalic
hypothesis.

It's highly unlikely that the hypothesis of a connection with Greek is
due to a Byzantine influences, though it is entirely possible that it
is a result of much earlier loans. In general, a Byzantine loanword
would not show the same correspondences between Greek and Armenian as
a word inherited from PIE would. Greek, Armenian and Indo-Iranian
share several gammatical features. The most notable are the augment
for past tenses and singular agreement for neuter plural subjects.
(The latter is often projected back to PIE, but I don't think the
evidence is there.) You will therefore come across occasional
references to a sprachbund of the three languages.

.

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