Re: How does Armenian fit into the Indo-European family?
- From: "mb" <azythos2@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 11 Mar 2007 12:49:57 -0700
On Mar 11, 11:42 am, phogl...@xxxxxx wrote:
Darkstar wrote:....
....Certainly, because they have been borrowed from Urartian or some other
little-known ancient language.
That's the same as stating they've been borrowed from God knows where.
That is the idea, yes.
Not the numbers. They are regular IE (likely Indo-iranian influence
for "mek").
.
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