Re: How does Armenian fit into the Indo-European family?


mb wrote:
On Mar 11, 11:42 am, phogl...@xxxxxx wrote:
Darkstar wrote:
...
Certainly, because they have been borrowed from Urartian or some other
little-known ancient language.

That's the same as stating they've been borrowed from God knows where.

That is the idea, yes.
...

Not the numbers. They are regular IE (likely Indo-iranian influence
for "mek").

They certainly are, and so are personal pronouns, and verbal endings,
and the declension of the verb "to be". The words might look weird,
but the whole grammar has a distinctly Indo-European look and feel.

.

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