Re: intrinsic advantage of Latin alphabet over bopomofo (for Chinese)??

On Mar 14, 10:03 pm, hru...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (Herman Rubin) wrote:
In article <6iUUNjBcI89FF...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Richard Herring <richard.herr...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

In message <et6rrh$1...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Herman Rubin
<hru...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes
In article <rqqhag0qru1n....@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Oliver Cromm <lispamat...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
* Richard Herring wrote:
In message <et2e6c$1...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Herman Rubin
<hru...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes
In article <IM+4mRHwWT8FF...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Richard Herring <richard.herr...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
In message <esps2e$...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Herman Rubin
<hru...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes

................

That's an awfully suspicious ellipsis.

Nothing to do with disambiguating homophones, then?

Is that not a problem in alphabetic languages?

Hunh? English has homophones that are spelled differently, and a small
number of homographs that are pronounced differently. In context,
there is almost never a problem.

But you're right about the "uncultured" argument, though that might be a
mistranslation of something more like "anti-cultural". It's so much a
part of the culture that abandoning kanji isn't "uncultured", it's
unthinkable.
Yeah, it's like asking Americans to give up cars.
This is not at all similar. Notice that I said, "If Kana
is adequate for Japanese"; in that case, giving up kanji
would be like making the transition from ideographic writing
Which part of the Japanese (or Chinese, for that matter) writing system
do you think is "ideographic", and why?

I would say most of it.

Maybe you're using "ideographic" in some secret, private way, since
otherwise that's total nonsense.

to alphabetic writing, which most written languages have
done without loss of clarity or ease of writing.
Name five.

I do not know all the ancient languages; I do not know
of too many modern ones which did this, although Hawaiian
is one such, and I believe Korean as well.

WHAT on earth are you accusing Hawaiian and Korean of having done?

But Greek went form Linear B to alphabetic, and Philistine
went from Linear A to alphabetic. Egyptian went through
stages, but ended up as the alphabetic Coptic.

See previous posting. WHERE ARE YOU GETTING THIS STUFF?????

Idiographic writing was sufficiently well known in the
ancient Middle East that the Semites must have had some
such before introducing the alphabet. The same would
hold for the Persian and Indian languages; they would
have had some form of writing before introducing the
alphabet.

MY GOD, YOU ARE IGNORANT.

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