Re: "It is I"

Am I wrong about these? Do most languages that inflect for case follow
the "It is I" pattern?

You may be interested to know that in Modern Hebrew --- along with
many other languages --- the verb agrees with the "object" in these
cases, as though saying "It am I' instead of "It is I." (In Hebrew,
this is only visible in the past/future. E.g., ZE HAYITI ANI "It was
I," lit., "it I-was I.")

BTW, as for "between you and I," Shakespeare thought it was fine.

-Joel




Joel M. Hoffman, PhD
http://www.lashon.net/JMH



.

Quantcast