Re: "It is I"

Dr. Joel M. Hoffman wrote:
Am I wrong about these? Do most languages that inflect for case follow the "It is I" pattern?


You may be interested to know that in Modern Hebrew --- along with
many other languages --- the verb agrees with the "object" in these
cases, as though saying "It am I' instead of "It is I." (In Hebrew,
this is only visible in the past/future. E.g., ZE HAYITI ANI "It was
I," lit., "it I-was I.")

BTW, as for "between you and I," Shakespeare thought it was fine.

That has been pointed out fairly frequently in this group, but Shakespeare was a long time ago. You'd think things might get better as the world progresses. And I think they did, until fairly recently.

Bart Mathias
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