Re: Indo-European Languages and Gramatical Gender Loss

On Jun 13, 10:04 am, Suaprazz...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
How does a language loose it's
gramatical gender?

It normally happens when an originally flexive language (declination
group/case/ending) changes to analitic form (relations by words'
order).

Is there any traces of it left in English?

In the elevated style some personal pronouns are preferred over others
for some nouns. Say seamen say "she" about the ship: "She came to the
port today". I don't know though if it's leftover of old grammatical
gender relations or just modern poetic association like "a ship - a
beloved woman" or so.


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