Re: Indo-European Languages and Gramatical Gender Loss

On Jun 15, 10:17 am, Seán O'Leathlóbhair <jwlaw...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

I picked 50/50 to be fair to French since that is the best case for
it. Note also the "approximately" as an admission that I was not
claiming precision. As the split moves away from 50/50, the chance of
two randomly selected nouns have different gender decreases though not
very rapidly until the split is quite far from 50/50. If masculine
out numbered feminine by 2 to 1 then the probably of different gender
drops to 4/9 and at 3 to 1 it drops to 5/8.

Maybe there is a typo in the last sentence? Just curious: the last
fraction doesn't seem to drop.

Javi
who would exchange my 4/9 of $1000 for your 5/8 of $1000.

.