Re: Subtitutes for English /T/ and /D/
- From: Aidan Kehoe <kehoea@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 16 Jul 2007 22:42:56 +0200
Ar an séú lá déag de mí Iúil, scríobh Oliver Cromm:
* Seán O'Leathlóbhair wrote:
On 16 Jul, 09:21, "John Atkinson" <johna...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
<phogl...@xxxxxx> wrote...
Ruud Harmsen <realemailons...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Many people now often use a correct [T] (but not a correct /D/!).
But if they do substitute it bu anything alse, it is by [s], not
[t].
I guess we use mostly [t] and [d] here in Finland. The good old days
when "the" was rendered as "röh" are regrettably gone.
Why do French speakers from France use [s] and [z], while those from
Quebec use [t] and [d]?
Not just the French but also the Spanish.
Even Germans.
Well, the actual Spanish manage [θ] just fine. I’ll be paying attention next
time I talk to one for how [ð] comes out; it hasn’t stuck in my mind up to
now.
I have often wondered why non-natives use [s] and [z] or [t] and [d]
but many natives use [f] and [v]. [s] and [z] or [t] and [d] mark you
as non-native but [f] and [v] might not.
Presumably because to their foreigners' ears, [T] and [f] or [d] and [v]
sound too different. We foreigners don't substitute, we approximate.
Likewise I hear foreigners approximate German ü (/y/) as /u/ or /yu/,
where, from a German perspective, /i/ would be the more natural
replacement.
I recommended /d/ several times as a better alternative to /z/ to
Germans who couldn't do /D/, should I reconsider?
Not in my opinion. /d/ reflects some native speaker accents, whereas /z/
does not. I notice that Ossis who’ve learned English informally do go for
/d/; cf. Rammstein’s [dɪs ɪs not ə lʌv soŋ], at 2:26 here:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4w9EksAo5hY
--
On the quay of the little Black Sea port, where the rescued pair came once
more into contact with civilization, Dobrinton was bitten by a dog which was
assumed to be mad, though it may only have been indiscriminating. (Saki)
.
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