Re: Subtitutes for English /T/ and /D/

On Jul 22, 1:13 pm, "Richard Wordingham" <jrw0...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Jul 21, 9:29 pm, Dominic Bojarski wrote:
Depends on the level and goals of the student. It takes a Pole a lot
of practice to say [T D]. Not all of them are willing to spend that
much time on one sound of many that they have problems with.
It's a matter of proximal and distal goals. The proximal goal is to
stop the student from using [f v].
Why? Why is it "unforgivable"?
I do not mislead them at all. I tell them quite clearly that using the
POLISH [t d] is a compromise, but one that does not impair
comprehension as does using [f v].

How does that "impair comprehension"?

Let me offer a suggestion. A feature of many American accents is that they
replace [T] by [tT] or [t].

No, actually; when the interdental is stopped, it's a dental [t] that
contrasts with the alveolar [t] of /t/.

Perhaps then the reason is that whereas a
Briton will have had to adjust for a merger of /T/ and /f/, an American will
have had to adjust for a merger of /T/ and /t/. Therefore, it may be a
sensible (albeit difficult) strategy to cope for an inability to pronounce
[T] by substituting [t] when speaking to Yanks and by substituting [f] when
speaking to Britons. I don't know what the better strategy is for making
oneself understood by White Southerners in the USA.

Talk ve-e-e-ry slo-o-o-w-ly.

.

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