Re: Albano-Illyrian language theory?
- From: VK <schools_ring@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 22 Jul 2007 15:34:24 -0700
Albanian is an Indo-European language.
No body is saying it is not IE now; but Albanian is IE language thanks
to enormous number (about 90%) of loan words (Greek, Latin, Slavic).
No, it is an IE language thanks to its IE "language model", its speech
patterns, paradigms of word changes and the ways to establish word
connections. Just look at Nom. "kush", Acc. "kë", Gen./Dat.
"kujt" ("who") That is clearly IE and clearly not Slavic to me. That
is not a self-sufficient proof of course, just a single sample.
You are making a mistake by over-estimating the value of the
vocabulary of a given language for typological studies. It is only
secondary and sometimes misleading tool. The first authentic Albanian
inscriptions are known from XIV century only. Do you have any idea
what may happen with words in a language in "just" 1500-2000 years?
About 20-30% of modern
Albanian are so strongly disfigured loan words that their origin can
be recognized only with the most extreme intellectual effort;
I invite you then to try to see an IE language behind the modern
Armenian. In some cases your Albanian studies will look like an easy
intellectual warming up :-) Again, you do not realize what time can do
with a language - and a rather short time on the historical scale.
It is gone far from the PIE
state; moreover it experienced a cardinal phonematic (not just
cumulative phonetic) transformation of its sound system, in this
aspect it shares the destiny of other IE isolate language - Armenian.
I do not understand your logic; you said that Albanian "went to far
from the PIE state" and added that "this language has developed its
_unique_ sound system"; in the end you claimed that "Albanian shared
the destiny of other IE isolated language - Armenian". OK Armenian,
but I do not see what kind of "isolation" Albanian language could have
suffered if he had been surrounded by other IE languages?
I did not say "isolated language" - I said "isolate language", where
"isolate" read as noun, so "a language being an isolate". An isolate
is a language that cannot be directly branched with any other language
of its family, or a language that cannot be even attributed to any of
the known language families (like say Euskara). I am calling Albanian
and Armenian to be isolates in the first sense of course.
Note: Albanian and Armenian are staying together here only as two
samples of isolate IE languages; besides that and besides of being of
the said IE family they have nothing in common.
I agree with you that nobody can prove "Illyrian-Albanian theory" but
I disagree that it is impossible to disprove it.
Currently it is as difficult to prove/disprove it, as my freshly
invented "Neanderthal word" - see the previous post. We have about a
couple of dozen of presumably Illyrian words with lesser than half of
them having some translation, others are just sets of sounds to us.
Approx 2,300 years after they were recorded, we are matching them to
possible sound-alikes in a modern language. With such "great" amount
of material and with such freedom of treatment I can prove Illyrian to
be the origin of the modern Mandarin and no one Academy of Science
will prove me wrong - or right :-)
P.S. To make the pill sweeter :-) : Albanian "lope" for "cow" indeed
surprises me, as well as it does to Illyrian-Albanian researchers as I
can tell. All and every IE language retains in some form one of known
PIE cattle terms or the sound imitation "mu"; Albanian is the _only_
IE language we know right now that falls out of this rule completely.
could be a relatively recent deviation of unknown origin. TheFrom the other side there is "mish kau" (beef), so "lope" for "cow"
interpretation of "lope" from "lupus" and other Roman forms for "wolf"
is plain idiotic. As I called b.s. on many of your writings before -
and for a reason - I feel myself obligated to point out where you are
right.
.
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