Re: Subtitutes for English /T/ and /D/
- From: Ruud Harmsen <realemailonsite@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 23 Jul 2007 07:56:37 +0200
Sun, 22 Jul 2007 14:46:37 -0700: "Peter T. Daniels"
<grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:
Which of the two statements above are you agreeing with?
All three. He's trying to tell me, it doesn't occur instantaneously,
and it spreads.
Then where is your disagreement?
See below.
Either there is a phonemic distinction in some idiolect, or there
isn't. There's no indeterminacy. Absolutely. Ever. No way. Nohow.
Here.
Could the reason of this be that lingtists is what in NL they call an
alpha science (does such a term exist in English?) and not a bèta
science? Lingists, and so phonologians, are not familiar with
measurement equipments, tolerances, uncertainties, etc.?
--
Ruud Harmsen
http://rudhar.com
.
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