Re: Fr/lat/ru tu-vous/tu-vos/ - : etymology ?
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 02 Oct 2007 15:39:47 -0700
On Oct 2, 3:55 pm, Aidan Kehoe <keh...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Ar an naoú lá is fiche de mí Méan Fómhair, scríobh Peter T. Daniels:
> On Sep 29, 11:54 am, Franz Gnaedinger <f...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> > On Sep 29, 4:10 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> > > Why would they insert an [r]?
> >
> > It's not really an 'r', something between orl and oil.
> > You should hear them talk.
>
> You should learn phonetic notation.
Most German isn't rhotic, Peter. So German speakers have the same factors
motiving their "phonetic" transcription as Brits and Australians.
> > > That makes absolutely no sense whatsoever. <c> is [k] in <correct>, no
> > > matter who is pronouncing it.
> >
> > You kan pronounce the 'c' in a rough German way,
> > kan't you?
>
> I have no idea what "a rough [German] way" is.
[ts], but only before <e> or <i> (or <ae> or <oe> or the other exceptions).
Franz is not making any sense.
Yet you feel confident in interpreting his "phonetic" terminology?
.
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