Re: Fr/lat/ru tu-vous/tu-vos/ - : etymology ?

On Oct 7, 12:34 pm, "Brian M. Scott" <b.sc...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Sun, 07 Oct 2007 05:45:34 -0700, "Peter T. Daniels"
<gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in
<news:1191761134.574734.293140@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
in sci.lang:





On Oct 7, 2:18 am, "Brian M. Scott" <b.sc...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Sat, 06 Oct 2007 23:10:20 -0700, "Peter T. Daniels"
<gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in
<news:1191737420.867869.256980@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
in sci.lang:
On Oct 7, 12:07 am, "Brian M. Scott" <b.sc...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Thu, 04 Oct 2007 05:31:34 GMT, John Atkinson
<johna...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in
<news:WU_Mi.4898$H22.452@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> in
sci.lang:
[...]
This is common in eye-dialect -- like <was> being spelled
<woz> to indicate a speaker of non-standard English, even
though <was> and <woz> are pronounced exactly the same
in all varieties of English.
Not true: many (most?) Americans have [wVz] for stressed
<was> and [wAz] for <woz>.
What does that mean? <woz> doesn't represent a word of
Standard English, so Americans don't have any
pronunciation "for" it.
Piffle. Ask a literate American how to pronounce the
nonsense word <woz>; the odds that he will rhyme it with
<Oz> are excellent.
You claimed that <woz> represents something other than "stressed
<was>."

I said that it would most likely be pronounced differently
from stressed <was>. This is true.

If anything is going to be respelled, it's either
_unstressed_ "was" or the stressed nonstandard [wvz] both
= <wuz>

This has nothing to do with my statement, which is *not*
about <woz> as a respelling of <was>.

You said it would rhyme with <Oz>, which is to say it would be
pronounced like standard <was>.

.

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