Re: Greek New Testament is translatiion from Aramaic?

On Nov 25, 1:02 am, mb <azyth...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Nov 24, 9:02 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:





On Nov 24, 9:22 pm, mb <azyth...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Nov 24, 12:41 pm, phogl...@xxxxxx wrote:

On Nov 24, 9:55 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
...
If this website has something to say, you can summarize its message.

The gist seems to be, that certain murky passages of the New Testament
make sense, if they are read as inept Greek translations of typically
Semitic poetic constructions and wordplays.

Which we talked about repeatedly.
The opinion of some people that the texts are not a translation is
entirely irrelevant:

1. The Greek is obviously that of L1 Semitic speakers. I'd suggest
that translation on the page or in the mind makes no substantial
difference.

Except, of course, for the definition of "translation."

The main point being that it remains totally irrelevant, formal
definition or not.

2. It is just personal opinion (albeit of titled persons): No internal
evidence really points to a first writing in Greek or in Aramaic, one
way or the other.

Merely the _lack_ of evidence of translation from Aramaic to Greek.

The high probability of a first version of these texts in Aramaic
remains considering the L1 of the authors, their status of ignorance
of writing in Greek (= not analphabetism, as the times were, but
ignorance of the high language, the only one in which writing was
accepted until then), and the internal evidence, i.e. that all these
continuous Semitisms. Lack of evidence in such a situation wouldn't
mean a thing, were it not that the question is irrelevant.-

That's like saying there must have been a Vulgar Latin _Vorlage_ of
the Aeneid or the Metamorphoses because no one _spoke_ Classical
Latin, therefore the Aeneid and Metamorphoses are translations.
.

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