Re: Greek New Testament is translatiion from Aramaic?

On Nov 25, 12:29 pm, mb <azyth...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Nov 25, 5:20 am, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

The high probability of a first version of these texts in Aramaic
remains considering the L1 of the authors, their status of ignorance
of writing in Greek (= not analphabetism, as the times were, but
ignorance of the high language, the only one in which writing was
accepted until then), and the internal evidence, i.e. that all these
continuous Semitisms. Lack of evidence in such a situation wouldn't
mean a thing, were it not that the question is irrelevant.-

That's like saying there must have been a Vulgar Latin _Vorlage_ of
the Aeneid or the Metamorphoses because no one _spoke_ Classical
Latin, therefore the Aeneid and Metamorphoses are translations.

Excuse me, is the Aeneid choke full of Vulgar? Which anyway would just
have been "argot" to its educated author.

The latest version of your specious argument had nothing to do with
the presence of nonstandard features in the text; you asserted that
whenever a native speaker of one language writes in another language,
they are necessarily translating when they do so.

Why should that not apply equally to those who speak Colloquial Arabic
writing in Standard -- or those who speak Vulgar Latin writing in
Classical?

In this case we are speaking about -a text produced by several
"uneducated" colonials -of L1 unrelated to Greek -who write
approximately the same stories -in different but consistently foreign-
speaker words -using calques and word-to-word from their own language,
which should have been unintelligible outside their area, or even
perhaps to the Hellenized citydweller in their area.

Except that that characterization is simply false. It is what was
believed about NT Greek in the 19th century before the discovery of
Greek papyri of all sorts of content contemporary with the NT texts.

I am not saying it's impossible to do it without a written "Vorlage"
or crib, but asking for proof positive that such Vorlage was not in
Greek is absurd because a Semitic one is more likely to have led to
such a result.

There is no reason to suppose the existence of such a Vorlage.

Now, comparing such a situation, as you did, to simple diglossia (and
a metropolitan one) is absurd. When handling apples, don't mix them
with oranges.

.

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