Re: Greek New Testament is translatiion from Aramaic?

Sun, 25 Nov 2007 11:33:02 -0800 (PST): "Peter T. Daniels"
<grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:

The latest version of your specious argument had nothing to do with
the presence of nonstandard features in the text; you asserted that
whenever a native speaker of one language writes in another language,
they are necessarily translating when they do so.

I can tesify from personal experience that this is often not the case.
I, for example, don't when I write in English or German, but I do
(when checking the text) when I write in Portuguese. So go figure.

This doesn't mean my German and English is always 100% faultless and
free of calques from Dutch.

In this case we are speaking about -a text produced by several
"uneducated" colonials -of L1 unrelated to Greek -who write
approximately the same stories -in different but consistently foreign-
speaker words -using calques and word-to-word from their own language,
which should have been unintelligible outside their area, or even
perhaps to the Hellenized citydweller in their area.

Except that that characterization is simply false. It is what was
believed about NT Greek in the 19th century before the discovery of
Greek papyri of all sorts of content contemporary with the NT texts.

I am not saying it's impossible to do it without a written "Vorlage"
or crib, but asking for proof positive that such Vorlage was not in
Greek is absurd because a Semitic one is more likely to have led to
such a result.

There is no reason to suppose the existence of such a Vorlage.

Could the examples in TinyURL.com/2bs7un be such a reason? If not, why
not?

--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
.

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