Re: Greek New Testament is translatiion from Aramaic?

On Nov 27, 1:42 pm, Yusuf B Gursey <y...@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Nov 27, 7:28 am, António Marques <m...@xxxxxxx> wrote:


I also wonder about modern south arabian - are those languages ever
considered by people - not linguists, of course - to be inferior forms
of arabic?

it was recognized by medieval philologists that Mehri was an
independent language. but modern arab propaganda in yemen may be
different.



later and modern people call it "Himyari" . Himyari was an ancient
divergent arab dialect, but later p[eople lumped everything south
arabian as "himyari".


My question derives from the popular conception that all the semitic
languages are very similar to each other (I can't judge their similarity

arab nationalist propaganda tends to lump all ancient semitic peoples
as essentailly arabs.

by myself). But I guess south semitic languages are a bigger step away

modern south arabian is an independent branch of semitic.



from arabic than, for instance, neo-aramaic? (Hebrew is similar,
alright, but then both hebrew and classical arabic have been frozen in
time.)

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