Re: Perfect mood
- From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 28 Nov 2007 05:08:45 -0800 (PST)
On Nov 28, 2:34 am, "benli...@xxxxxxxxxx" <benli...@xxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
One of the religious nutters whose usenet posts I read from time to
time made a comment about how you can't understand the Bible properly
unless you understand the Hebrew use of the "perfect mood". Now you
can get all kinds of amusing hits for "perfect mood" on Google,
usually involving scented candles, romantic music and soft lights. But
as a grammarian, it makes me grit my teeth. "Perfect" is a category of
tense or aspect, not mood.
Is "perfect mood" an established term for talking about Hebrew grammar
in English? If so, what is it really?
No.
No idea.
Hebrew verbal inflection has been analyzed in terms of "aspect" since
the late 19th century (but in a different sense from "aspect" as used
of Russian), but the system is rather more complicated than that of
Arabic and historically remains a puzzle.
If imperative counts as a mood, then all of Semitic has it, but Hebrew
doesn't have a subjunctive as in Arabic and Akkadian.
.
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