Re: Perfect mood
- From: "Stefano MAC:GREGOR" <esperantujo@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 1 Dec 2007 00:24:10 -0800 (PST)
On Nov 30, 7:43 am, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Is "causative" generally taken as a "voice"?
Generally, no. It's only called that by me. I was surprised that
someone (Helmut) seemed to believe the descripion might be useful.
_Morphologically_, causative and passive (and intensive and reciprocal)
are parallel in Semitic, but is "voice" normally used as a label for a
_morphological_ or a _syntactic_ category?
I don't understand what you mean.
My use of the term "voice" was just an attempt to use a familiar term
to translate the Hebrew term "binyan", just as some people use the
terms "gender" and "number", rather than "class", to describe Swahili.
--
Stefano
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: Perfect mood
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Perfect mood
- Prev by Date: Re: almendra: Arabic root of Spanish word
- Next by Date: Re: Waradpande seems to have destroyed PIE already
- Previous by thread: Re: Illyrian prefix an-
- Next by thread: Re: Perfect mood
- Index(es):