Re: How did the Semitic Alphabet become the Greek Alphabet so quickly?

On Dec 17, 12:49 pm, hru...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (Herman Rubin) wrote:
In article <63b80ab4-f21f-4292-a406-92b6036d0...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Jack Linthicum <jacklinthi...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On Dec 14, 12:08 am, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Dec 13, 6:22 pm, Jack Linthicum <jacklinthi...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
On Dec 11, 5:17 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Dec 11, 5:08 pm, Jack Linthicum <jacklinthi...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

.................

After Greek, the story becomes clearly, but the leap from Semitic to
Greek is still a partial mystery.-

I was recommended to this group to solve a problem, it appears that is
not possible. The statements Hoffman makes seem to have validity, even
logic, whatever you feel about his book. Rearrange the question: How
did the Semitic Alphabet become the Greek alphabet so quickly?

I have read Hoffman's book, and I am totally unimpressed;
in some cases, I even know that it is wrong.

As to how the Semitic alphabet became the Greek alphabet
so quickly, those Greeks in the trading communities where
people using both languages met saw the advantages of
using a small alphabet instead of having to memorize a
large number of syllables. A new word could be introduced
easily, and even the clarity of writing was improved.

What are you contrasting with what? Who would "memorize a large number
of syllables"?

And why do you suppose the Greeks would have *seen* the Phoenicians
using writing? It seems to me it would have been a closely guarded
"trade secret."
.

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