Re: How did the Semitic Alphabet become the Greek Alphabet so quickly?

Am Sat, 22 Dec 2007 09:54:27 -0800 (PST) schrieb Peter T. Daniels:

On Dec 22, 11:00 am, LEE Sau Dan <dan...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
"Peter" == Peter T Daniels <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

    >> So, what exactly is a "syllabic script"?

    Peter> One where the units denoted by the characters are
    Peter> syllables.

So, you mean Hanguls are a syllabic script?

You asked this two days ago, and I answered you two days ago.

And Chinese characters are a syllabic script, too?

C. F. Hockett said, "A syllabary with homophones disambiguated."

And  Japanese  Kanas  aren't   syllabic  scripts,  because  each  kana
represents one *mora*, not a syllable.

This has already been discussed at length.

Well, by the definition you gave yourself all of them can be argued to
be syllabaries, with the exception of the Kana.

In Hangul, the "characters" can be further decomposed, in Chinese, the
characters denote syllables, but different characters denote equal
syllables. So they aren't syllabaries.

But the Kana are generally classified as syllabaries, even though the
characters do not represent syllables.

Und nu?

Joachim
.

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