Re: Latin descended through creolization

On Dec 23, 8:20 am, Joachim Pense <s...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Peter T. Daniels wrote:
On Dec 22, 4:20 pm, "ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx"
<ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Dec 22, 10:53 am, "Brian M. Scott" <b.sc...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

You can't look at words derived from reduction and words
in their pristine strong forms as cognates (say sanskrit
Vidhawa and Engish Widow).

Apparently *you* cannot do so, but *we* can certainly say
with confidence that Skt. <vidhávâ> and Eng. <widow> are
cognates, along with Latin <vidua>

Is this a modern respelling of Classical Latin or is it Medieval
Latin? In Classical Latin, it had to be <vidva>.

The convention is to use <u> in lowercase, <V> in capitals, thus uidua
or VIDVA depending whether you're transcribing a manuscript or an
inscription respectively..

I have been wondering if this convention is something peculiar to
English-speaking countries. In Latin those texts by German publishers
(mostly for school usage, though) I know, the convention is to use V
whenever it is supposed to be a semivowel, and u when it's a full vowel;
for both upper and lower case.

So I memorized the perfect forms "monui", but "delevi".

Don't you remember the fight about the phonemic status of the vowel
vs. the glide? And that there's no warrant whatsoever for dividing the
single letter used by the Romans into two different symbols according
to its allophonic appearance in any particular item?

You can spell your [phonetic transcription] however you want, but when
you're simply providing the <written text>, you can't make such an
alteration.

BTW the Thesaurus Linguae Latinae is edited and published in Germany.
.

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