Re: Origins of French partitive, pas, etc.
- From: kj <socyl@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 1 Jan 2008 00:12:02 +0000 (UTC)
In <66ea2e5b-9826-4a22-9901-201a7975c005@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> mb <azythos2@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
On Dec 31, 9:18=A0am, kj <so...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
I'm learning French and I'm mystified by several syntactic features
of French that have no counterpart in any other language I know
(not that I know that many, but still), certainly not in any other
Romance language I know.
I am most intrigued by the French so-called "partitive article"
(J'ai bu DU vin. =A0Literally "I drank OF THE wine."),
ho bevuto del vino [standard it.]
I stand corrected. I don't speak Italian beyond the very basics,
but I thought that "I drank wine" would have always been translated
as "bevvi vino" or "ho bevuto vino"... Well, that's interesting.
The plot thickens...
BTW, "bebi del vino" is somewhat stilted but not *ungrammatical*
in Spanish; it just doesn't have the straightforward declarative
ring of "bebi vino". The situation here is slightly analogous to
the difference between "I drank wine" and "I drank the wine" (though
"bebi del vino" sounds to me more stilted than "I drank the wine"
or than its exact translation in Spanish "bebi el vino", for that
matter). I assume that this is NOT the case for "ho bevuto vino"
vs. "ho bevuto del vino." I.e. I assume that these two forms are
synonymous. Is this correct?
kj
--
NOTE: In my address everything before the first period is backwards;
and the last period, and everything after it, should be discarded.
.
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