Re: Origins of French partitive, pas, etc.
- From: Harlan Messinger <hmessinger.removethis@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 01 Jan 2008 08:46:10 -0500
kj wrote:
> I guess what I'm saying is that I hold as axiomatic that the language
spoken by multitudes does not become more complex *for no reason
at all*.
Why do so many people hold this to be axiomatic? Especially without checking first to see whether linguists who *didn't* take it as axiomatic have conducted research to assess its truth?
I can't imagine anything of this magnitude taking place
without some strong determinant operating "locally" at the moment
of every utterance.
Imagined truth is what governed societies before they figured out the scientific approach to assessing truth. Wasn't it once axiomatic that left-handed people were evil?
.
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