Re: ``Ken and I being on the radio together''



On 2008-01-21, Peter T. Daniels wrote:

My own theory is that the objective case for non-finite verbs comes from
indirect statement in Latin.

Sorry, English ain't descended from Latin.

No, but it's descended from Old English.

The OED has separate entries for -ing[1], descended from OE -ung,
-ing

1. The original function of the suffix was to form nouns of action;
as ácsung ASKING, from ácsian to ask, ...

2. The most notable development of the vbl. n. in -ing is its use as
a gerund, i.e. a substantive with certain verbal functions,
particularly those of being qualified by an adverb instead of an
adjective, and of governing an object like a verb: e.g. the habit of
speaking loosely (= loose speaking); he has hopes of coming back
speedily (= a speedy return); he practises writing (= the writing
of) leading articles; ...

and -ing[2],

suffix of the present participle, and of adjs. thence derived, or so
formed; an alteration of the original OE. -ende ...

As -inge was the proper ending of the vbl. n. (-ING1), it has
naturally suggested itself to many that the levelling of the
pres. pple. under the same form must have been the result of some
contact or confusion of the functions or constructions of the two
formations. But investigation has discovered no trace of any such
functional or constructional contact in Early ME.; and it is now
generally agreed that the confusion was, in its origin, entirely
phonetic. On the other hand, the fact that the forms had, by the
14th c., become identical, may have been a factor in the development
of the gerundial use of the vbl. n., which began then; and it has
certainly influenced the subsequent development of the compound
gerundial forms being made, having made, having been made, being
about to go, etc., which have the same form as the corresponding
participles (see -ING1 2). The identity of form of pr. pple. and
gerund probably also assisted the process whereby, at a later date,
such a construction as ‘the king went a-hunting’, formerly ‘on or an
huntinge’, was shortened to ‘the king went hunting’, the last word
being then taken as the participle; and thus to the shortening of
‘the ark was a-building’, orig. ‘on building’, to ‘the ark was
building’,---in which, if ‘building’ is taken as a pple., it must
be explained as a pple. pass. = being built. To the same cause must
be ascribed some of the current constructions of the gerund, and the
tendency of the vbl. n. when used attributively to run together with
the pr. pple. used adjectivally, as in cutting tools, a driving
wheel (see -ING1).


--
Bob just used 'canonical' in the canonical way. [Guy Steele]
.



Relevant Pages

  • Re: ``Ken and I being on the radio together
    ... The most notable development of the vbl. ... pres. pple. ... gerund probably also assisted the process whereby, at a later date, ... be ascribed some of the current constructions of the gerund, ...
    (sci.lang)
  • Re: "To run is good exercise"?!
    ... >>> Those two words don't occur much in discussions of English grammar. ... > conceptual division between gerund and participle? ... > noun, the other one an adjective, ... ... Kentish Ayenbite of 1340, the pple. ...
    (sci.lang)
  • Re: "Been" as a perfect of "go"
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    (alt.usage.english)
  • Re: Gerund, participle, infinitive
    ... My son objected that English has no gerund and that in the second ... "To walk is cheaper than to drive" instead of "Walking ... speech" very often inheres in a word's function rather than its form. ...
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  • Re: Infinitives
    ... Google gives me _Higher Lessons In English_ by one ALONZO ... And, when I tnhink about it, this is obviously equivalent to gerund. ... Modern High German has the noun of -ung which could be called a gerund (I am ... The Middle High German form is -unge, I don't know the OHG form. ...
    (sci.lang)

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