Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- From: LEE Sau Dan <danlee@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 28 Feb 2008 08:12:17 +0800
"Christian" == Christian Weisgerber <naddy@xxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
>> (b) English may have fewer markers than other
>> languages. (Reminds me of the book titled "Eats, Shoots and
>> Leaves.") Parsing verbs from nouns would be difficult
>> (statistically speaking) without the -s ending for 3Sg. (3Pl is
>> less a problem because subject nouns are already marked with
>> -s.)
Christian> That doesn't hold water. -s only appears in the
Christian> present tense. Most notably it is absent from the past
Christian> tense, and the past tense is used extensively in
Christian> English. No parsing problems there. The present tense
Christian> -s is also dropped colloquially/dialectally.
Yeah! The past tense forms should be considered the "most basic"
forms. :)
--
Lee Sau Dan 李守敦 ~{@nJX6X~}
E-mail: danlee@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Home page: http://www.informatik.uni-freiburg.de/~danlee
.
- References:
- why the -s in English verbs?
- From: ekkilu
- Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- From: John Atkinson
- Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- From: Joachim Pense
- Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- From: ekkilu
- Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- From: Christian Weisgerber
- why the -s in English verbs?
- Prev by Date: Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- Next by Date: Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- Previous by thread: Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- Next by thread: Re: why the -s in English verbs?
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|