Re: Pronunciation dictionaries?



(This is really in reply to LSD.)

Ruud Harmsen wrote:
Mon, 21 Apr 2008 23:11:32 +0800: LEE Sau Dan <danlee@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>: in sci.lang:

"António" == António Marques <m.ap@xxxxxxx> writes:
António> Of course you can. You only need open any grammar which António> will tell you that 'spanish is pronounced as it is António> written' in order to know that. I suppose finnish isn't António> very different.

"As it is written" is too simplistic a description. How do
you pronounce the "c" (in Europe) and "g"? Do you pronounce the
"h"?

Each of [h], [cg][aou] and [cg][ei] has only one possible
interpretation. You might have a point with -u- (cf. qu, gu). However,
'pronounced as it is written' will be the layman's description for 'any
written form has only one possible, instantly determinable, reading'.

True, but some straightforward rules cover all that.

António> Also, spanish phonetics are simple enough that no António>
situations like the german one where <st> can be st- [St] António>
or -s t- [st] seem to occur.

But you pronounce "c" (in Europe)

(What's with the 'in Europe'?)

and "g" depending on what follows. So, how is that simpler than
the German "st", "sp"?

In every way. You *can't* know what <-st-> above represents. Whereas you
can always be sure what <ce> is.

Kindly cut the gnumacs quoting. No one else uses it. It's distressing.
** Posted from http://www.teranews.com **
.



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