Re: The "antediluvian" Xur-Gon

On May 11, 5:54 pm, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

But you've remained silent about how "baker" and "pekar" *could* have
descended from the same root. As far as you're concerned, they sound
alike and have the same meaning, so that's all there is to it. But as
has been discovered time and time again, this is not a reliable basis
for determining word relationships. So you can repeat a thousand times
that the words sound similar and mean the same thing, and you still will
not have demonstrated how they could have evolved from the same source.
THAT's what you have to demonstrate.

First I would like to hear your answer to the following question: what
the P "intruder" (OHG packan, pachan, peccho; cf. Serb. peka, pečenje,
pecen, peci) is doing among the other Germanic B (baking) words?

The above example showed that the known phonetic rules couldn't be of
any help in this case. And what is left to be done to explain the
relation between Serb-Slav. pekar and Eng. baker? Nothing? If the
modern German word backen (bake) once sounded as packan we could say
that the Grimm's law is useless (inapplicable) in this specific
instance?

Is there anyone who is still ready to continue claiming that Slavic
pekar and English baker are not related; i.e. that pekar and baker are
the false cognates? As we can see, OHG pachan and Serb. pečen must be
the words that are derived from the same "root". In addition, if OHG
packan and Serb. pečen sprang from the same source it is clear that
the same "birthplace" must be shared by OHG backan and Eng. bake.

DV

.

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