Re: Are these languages left to right or right to left ? and windows.

On 23 May, 18:52, Yusuf B Gursey <y...@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On May 23, 12:38 am, "ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx"



<ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On May 22, 5:50 pm, Yusuf B Gursey <y...@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On May 22, 5:30 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On May 22, 2:50 pm, Adam Funk <a24...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

On 2008-05-22, Peter T. Daniels wrote:

Yiddish uses a complete alphabet (not an abjad or abjad + matres
lectionis); it does not put (optional) vowel points under consonant
letters. Some of its vowel letters have the shape of consonant + vowel
point, but the "vowel points" are not omissible and cannot be placed
under any consonant letters.

Aha, thanks. So if a group of people started writing English with the
usual English consonants from the Roman alphabet but optional vowel
points instead of the vowel letters, you would classify that as a
different script, because it would belong to a different class (abjad
rather than alphabet) --- right?

Yup.

Uyghur and one form of Kurdish orthography are almost alone in having
made the same change to Arabic script (a letter for every vowel);
Uyghur even goes so far as to spell borrowed Arabic words in
phonological rather than etymological orthography.

Am I right in thinking that Persian is written with basically the same
script as Arabic (with some extra characters for extra sounds)? (I'm
fairly certain it was a Persian speaker who told me that.)

Yup.

Words borrowed from Arabic retain their orthography even though
Persian doesn't have lots of the sounds (the interdentals, the
emphatics, etc.), so the Persian script has the letters from them and
needed more letters for p, v, g, and ch [tS]. It was Persian rather

persian uses waw <w> for [v]

Would Iranians use waw in spelling Ouagadagou? .... and would they
really pronounce it as [vAgadagU]?- Hide quoted text -

I presume so.



- Show quoted text -

Farsi Wikipedia currently has اوآگادوگو - if the encoding's wrong,
that's with alif-waw-alif madda at the beginning. Does this
transcription imply that the transcriber interpreted the original as
[ua....] rather than [wa]?
My Farsi is non-existent, but their spelling gets 301 Google hits;
taking the initial alif off gets none.
This of course does not answer the question of what Farsi would do
with a definite [wa]; the US capital appears to be واشنگتن with waw-
alif, which I presume is /vA/.
.

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