Re: Sana < Thanaa
- From: Harlan Messinger <hmessinger.removethis@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 26 May 2008 15:13:22 -0400
analyst41@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On May 25, 10:55 pm, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:On May 20, 8:20 am, Harlan MessingerNo, it isn't clear, just because you happen to have been struck by a
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:Clearly, Hindi/Urdu has borrowed Zevar (since Sasnkrit doesn't haveZevar means jewellery in Hindi/Urdu and Jauhari means jeweller.The ending "-ery" is nothing more than the same suffix found in in
I strongly suspect all these words are related.
"bakery", "grocery", and "brewery", so the only thing you have for
comparison is the "jewel" part. For that to be related to the Hindi
words you mentioned, it would be either a coincidence or a late
borrowing on Hindi's part because the modern sense of the word "jewel"
only goes back to Old French. The earlier source was medieval Latin
"jocale" = "plaything" (though OED says some "gaudium" = "enjoyment" is
also suggested as the source).
'z')from Arabic/Persian. Sanskrit has many words such as Abharana,
Kaustubha etc, but they have become literary words today.
Spanish, French and Italian have, respectively,
1 joya, alhaja
2 piedra preciosa
jewel nm bijou (joyau)
jewel nm joyau (bijou, objet ou chose précieuse)
jewel nf gioia (gioiello)
jewel nm gioello
It is pretty clear that Julhara has been borrowed by Europe during the
Arab invasions.
superficial resemblance. Besides, where did you pull "julhara" out of
all of a sudden?- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
Its amazing that you can accept "Jawhara" and not "Julhara" .
Who said anything about whether I "accept" either? It's that "Julhara" wasn't already in the discussion and then you pulled it out of your ass and presented it as a fait accompli.
At any rate, its pretty clear to me that the French, Italian and
Spanish forms are the result of borrowing from Arabic.
Yes, I understand it's "clear" to *you*. Because evidently things can be clear to you without there being any logical or historical basis for them. Because you think "because I say so" is sufficient basis for claiming something to be fact.
We know that
there was contact, and the direction of borrowing is also clear from
the reduction that seems to have taken place in the Latin languages.
It's so clear to you, yet you are incapable of explaining it.
Even the English form is essentially a reduced form of the Arabic with
an r-l lenition and the dropping of the "h" and the final vowel.
Because you say so, right? Untrue, however, since the English form came directly from the Old French.
.
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