Re: Why is walk spelt that way ?

On Jun 11, 9:12 am, António Marques <m...@xxxxxxx> wrote:
mb wrote:
Malayalam / a/ and /i/ both have allophones of /E/. Is it
possible for two phonemes to have an allophone in common?

Yes of course. [z] is an allophone of /z/ and of /s/ in Modern
Greek. Similar things happen in Portuguese.

Even though the phenomenon exists, I don't think these examples are
entirely appropriate. The z/s alternance in Gk, It, Fr in consonant
clusters according to voiced/unvoiced, and the intervocalic to non-
i.v. z/s alternance in Fr, It, Pt, Ger (and at times En) need not
necessarily be considered allophones of the same phoneme. In fact,
the theory explaining recognition just because the sound belongs to
different phonemes seems as valid.

I for one am unable to naturally use different siblilants in english
close/close, house/houses, etc. I probably wouldn't have any problem if
the /s/ were written <c>, nor would I have one if there were no
alternation within the same root.

I didn't understand: Do you mean you cannot use /s/ or /z/ in English
where prescribed by usage, even though you can do that in Pt according
to intervocalic-or-not position? If yes, what could be the cause of so
strange a disability?
.

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