Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- From: Craoibhin66@xxxxxxxxx
- Date: Mon, 14 Jul 2008 03:17:43 -0700 (PDT)
On Jul 10, 2:22 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Jul 10, 6:39 am, Adam Funk <a24...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Apart from the generative argument, broadening the information that
you can think about and discuss must broaden your range of utterances.
?? Literacy alters syntactic structuring??
Well, in many languages there are indeed substantial differences of
syntax between literal language and popular dialects, and literary
syntax may find its way into spoken language via reading. This is
partly because sloppy translations of popular books from foreign
languages might include foreign syntax.
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- References:
- Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- From: Peter T. Daniels
- Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- Prev by Date: Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- Next by Date: Re: Random Question on Indo-European Languages
- Previous by thread: Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- Next by thread: Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|