Re: Vamos a hablar claro

On Jul 23, 2:32 pm, António Marques <m...@xxxxxxx> wrote:
Athel Cornish-Bowden wrote:
Is it not the case that although written Spanish and written Portuguese
are so similar that anyone who can read one can read the other, yet the
f -> h change didn't happen in Portuguese, so Dušan's "theory" would
also need to explain why one doesn't see these effects in Portuguese?

Oh, he's said it quite clearly, that pt. feno, fel, fumo, forte, etc
have nothing to do with sp. heno, hiel, humo, fuerte, which are supposed
to come from some grecoslavic source.

Do not exaggerate! Does it mean that I should not, by no means,
compare the words from the Slavic or Greek vocabulary?

Even Vasmer wasn't sure about Lat. fenum and Slavic seno and therefore
he said:"Сомнительна связь с лат. fēnum "сено" (The connection with
Lat. fenum is doubtful); "doubtful" doesn't mean either "impossible"
or "rejected". I just was trying to examine if such a relation (Slav.
seno <=> Lat. fenum; Sp. heno) is possible at all.

I proposed the word "dry" (Russ. сухой, Serb. suh, Lat. siccus) and I
didn't say that my "drying-gras theory" must be correct.

DV
.