Re: Vamos a hablar claro

Dušan Vukotić wrote:
On Jul 23, 11:33 pm, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Dušan Vukotić wrote:
On Jul 23, 2:32 pm, António Marques <m...@xxxxxxx> wrote:
Athel Cornish-Bowden wrote:
Is it not the case that although written Spanish and written Portuguese
are so similar that anyone who can read one can read the other, yet the
f -> h change didn't happen in Portuguese, so Dušan's "theory" would
also need to explain why one doesn't see these effects in Portuguese?
Oh, he's said it quite clearly, that pt. feno, fel, fumo, forte, etc
have nothing to do with sp. heno, hiel, humo, fuerte, which are supposed
to come from some grecoslavic source.
Do not exaggerate! Does it mean that I should not, by no means,
compare the words from the Slavic or Greek vocabulary?
Yes, *if there isn't already a perfectly good explanation through a
well-established route by which the words came down from the parent
language*.



Even Vasmer wasn't sure about Lat. fenum and Slavic seno
Which has nothing to do with Spanish "heno".

and therefore
he said:"Сомнительна связь с лат. fēnum "сено" (The connection with
Lat. fenum is doubtful); "doubtful" doesn't mean either "impossible"
or "rejected". I just was trying to examine if such a relation (Slav.
seno <=> Lat. fenum; Sp. heno) is possible at all.
There isn't any reason why the Spanish word "heno", which is exactly the
word that would be expected in coming down from Latin, would come from
Serbian.

Not fair at all!
Are you trying to accuse me of having some chauvinistic ideas? I
think that your behavior at the moment is very indecent and shameful.
I have never, ever, said that any language in the world has ever
borrowed a single Serbian word! I know the main principles in which
the human speech has been developing from its very beginning and I
know that none of the languges had a special role in such process.


I proposed the word "dry" (Russ. сухой, Serb. suh, Lat. siccus) and I
didn't say that my "drying-gras theory" must be correct.
Why are you wasting your time proposing absurd theories to explain
something for which the perfectly ordinary explanation fits 100%?

Don't be silly! Nothing in this world is 100% sure!

What are we going to do with Latin fumus?

You keep asking this. Since Spanish "humo" is exactly what would be expected, there isn't any reason for you to question this one specific word in the first place.

Is it not related to Slavic
dim (smoke)?

There isn't the slightest reason to think so, since it's exactly what it should be given the usual Latin > Spanish progression.

Of course it is.

Because you say so? I see no "of course" about it whatsoever. Maybe it is, maybe it isn't. Either way, it has nothing to do with "fumum" > "humo".

Then what makes you so sure that fenum
is not related to Slavic seno?

I have expressed no opinion on this whatsoever. I have only questioned why you keep bringing it up when it has nothing to do with what happened after Latin.

Vasmer isn't sure, other authorities
aren't sure, but Harlan is sure?

Harlan has expressed no opinion on this, so get off it. Stop inventing reasons to deflect attention from the matter at hand.
.

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