Re: The monumental stupidity of PIE theorists further illustrated
- From: "benlizro@xxxxxxxxxx" <benlizro@xxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 24 Jul 2008 19:09:58 -0700 (PDT)
On Jul 25, 12:18 pm, analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Jul 24, 7:35 pm, "ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx"
<ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Jul 24, 5:57 pm, analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Jul 24, 5:09 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
You would have to "borrow with fortition" the entire vocabulary of aMy counter-establishment theory is that the bulk of Greek amd Latin
language for your idiocy to work.
grammar can best be explained by "borrowing (due to contact) with
lenition" from Sanskrit. This simple fact destroys the notion of a
fully grammatized ancestor of all three languages.
If it didn't have a grammar, how did people speak it?
There were languages spread out over a fairly large area of Eurasia
that had a pidgin-like grammar and were in contact due to trade,
migrations etc. before the inhabitants of the Sapta-Sindhu had a burst
of linguistic creativity and created Sanskrit grammar. This grammar
diffused back out to Greece and Latium but suffered some degradation
in the process. Some grammatical elemnts might subsequetly have
diffused back to sanskrit speakers from Greece and Latium.
When it comes to the lexicon - there are stronger sounds in Greek and
Latin than those of Sanskrit for many words and I am looking for the
best explantion for those, given that, under my theory, grammatical
considerations have destroyed the notion of a common genetic ancestor
of all three.
Start with Sanskrit and Greek.http://www.utexas.edu/cola/centers/lrc/books/pies01.html
Among the data available from the various dialects we must still draw
heavily on those monuments which were of greatest importance to our
predecessors, notably Vedic Sanskrit and Homeric Greek.
If my theory succeeds for these three uber-languages - I shall move on
to other pursuits and leave it to lesser lights to figure out how
Germanic, Iranian, Armenian and Slavic languages etc. would fit in.
And yes - I plan to totally refute
How far have you got?
I have recently had a totally monumental shattering insight why what
happened to vulgar latin to generate the romance languages or to
archaic Prakirt to generate Hindi etc. could not have happened to any
hypthetical language to generate Sanskrit, Greek and Latin.
When I reveal it to the world PIE establishment are going to slap
their collective foreheads and exclaim "how could so many of us have
missed something this elementary over more than a century of
research?"
and humiliate (posthumously, in
many cases, I guess) folks such as Kuiper who have essentially
defecated on Sanskirt by claiming to see residues of the totally
chimerical "Laryngeals" in it.
How is that defecation? ... and why Sanskrit in particular when
reflexes of laryngeals are seen in all IE languages (except the now
extinct Hittite)?
How can something that never existed be reflected anywhere?
I suggest you seek professional help and treatment for your
"monumental shattering insights" and your
increasingly delusional notions of what your ideas are worth.
Ross Clark
.
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