Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- From: LEE Sau Dan <danlee@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 04 Aug 2008 08:05:08 +0800
"Adam" == Adam Funk <a24061@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
>> No. Spoken English is not written English. They differ in
>> syntax as well as lexicon.
Adam> I certainly don't think they are *exactly* the same, but
Adam> that they are closely related. My writing and speaking
Adam> lexica mostly overlap. I doubt that there are any syntactic
Adam> constructions that I use in writing but not in speech.
How often do you write FORMALLY?
>> You can read it out aloud, but it may not sound like natural
>> speech.
Adam> Not exactly, but I think we use the same language functions
Adam> to hear and understand natural speech, planned oration, and
Adam> literature read aloud.
Evidence? You've compared the MRI scans?
Adam> I definitely agree that the frequencies differ. Personally,
Adam> I try to avoid using the passive voice in writing without a
Adam> good reason,
So, you seldom write formal documents, do you?
Adam> but in general, that's a good example of what I mean: the
Adam> construction exists in speech but is much more frequent in
Adam> writing; the same is true of nesting a relative clause.
Do you often write with slangs and constructions not in the standard
language? e.g. "gonna", "gotta", ...
--
Lee Sau Dan 李守敦 ~{@nJX6X~}
E-mail: danlee@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Home page: http://www.informatik.uni-freiburg.de/~danlee
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