Re: proof that most etymologies are only fairy-tales

On Aug 3, 9:26 pm, analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Aug 3, 6:32 pm, Harlan Messinger



<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Dušan Vukotić wrote:
On Aug 3, 6:42 pm, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Dušan Vukotić wrote:
Is there anyone who is able to explain the homonymy of English bear
(carry, cause to be born) and bear (omnivorous animal/mammal)? Why and
how has it happened?
Because there isn't any reason why it *wouldn't* happen, and both words
evolved in unsurprising ways to become, as it happens, homonyms.

And how that "unsurprising way" looked like? Could you be more
specific? What bear (carry, cause to be born, bring forth) and bear
(animal) have in common?

Why don't you LOOK THEM UP and find out for yourself if you want to know
what they are? If you haven't bothered to look up the details, then you
have no basis for disputing them.

Maybe you believe it happened by chance?

Yes.

But
what if there is no accidental word-developing within the IE
vocabulary?

Who said anything about "accidental word-developing"? What does that
even mean?

In French, the words "ou" ("or"), "où" ("where"), "houx" ("holly"),
"houe" ("hoe"), and "août" ("August") are all homonyms, derived,
respectively, from the non-homonymic words Latin "aut", Latin "ubi", Old
High German "hulis", Old High German "houwâ", and Latin "Augustus"..

thats very instructive. Thanks.

But of course I would use something like this to poke holes in the
standard PIE model.

I am sure there are no homonyms in any PIE reconstruction - since the

Sheesh, you've never even opened a "dictionary of Indo-European roots"
and noticed all the homophonous ones????

neogrammarian principles would prevent two words that sound alike in
the parent language from evolving along dfferent paths in the daughter
languages.

Very true.

But nothing prevents them from having taken on different affixes,
surviving with different vowel grades, different accents, etc.
.

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