Re: Why does some culture's language become replaced but others don't?
- From: Adam Funk <a24061@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 21 Aug 2008 19:06:06 +0100
On 2008-07-24, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
Then use definitions linguists use, instead of making up others and
imputing them to linguists.
I was trying to use your own definition of "writing" --- but you were
uncooperatively refusing to provide that, even though I explicitly
said I was trying imperfectly to recall it --- along with your
preferred definition of "utterance" (Bloomfield's).
--
Oh, I do most of my quality thinking on the old sandbox. [Bucky Katt]
.
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