Re: when did oinos become oinos/oikos/oiwos ("one")

On Aug 24, 12:23 pm, analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Aug 23, 6:49 pm, Joachim Pense <s...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx (in sci.lang):

Till recently the standard cop-out why Sanskrit eka is so different
from one, une etc. was that languages sometimes replace inherited
words arbitrarily.

This "oikos" appears to be a new contrivance (never mind that it means
"house" in Greek) intended to bring "eka" into line.

The PIE root is *(H)oy, which together with the suffix -no became oi-no >
Latin unus, and with a different suffix -ka became IIr. ai-ka > Skr. eka

Joachim

What utter nonsense. Why should the uniflected form of the most
primitive word any language would have take a suffix ?


Here are the words for "one" in some languages of the island of
Malakula in Vanuatu, all of them members of the same local subgroup of
Austronesian:

Axamb: acakai
Letemboi: isua
Aulua: mboghol
Timbembe: sapm
Uripiv: i tes

By contrast, the words for "two", "three", "four" and "five" are
transparently exact cognates throughout.

An interesting fact about "one", no? "Primitive" it may be in some
sense, but this certainly does not render it immune from being
replaced by morphologically different or even completely unrelated
forms.

Ross Clark


Talk about
shoe-horning - the copout "Sanskrit replaced the PIE 'one' for unknown
reasons" is better than this.

And I suppose the (H) is that Saussurean obscenity - a "Laryngeal"?

.

Relevant Pages

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