Re: when did oinos become oinos/oikos/oiwos ("one")

lorad wrote:
On Aug 25, 3:43 am, analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Aug 24, 10:45 pm, Harlan Messinger

You seem to be under the impression that these suffixes were made
up ad hoc. Are you sure? Keep in mind that you're extremely good at
commenting on things about which you haven't bothered to get all
the facts (including all the times that you admit quite frankly
that you're too lazy to look for them). Hint: where are English
"any", "unique", "inch", and "ounce" traced back to?

but the posited PIE suffix is semantically inert - Oi simply decided
to change to Oika so that "eka" can be derived from it through sound
change. "ka" is a well-known suffix that inflects words and changes
their meaning in Sanskrit (ashta = eight, ashtaka = set of eight and
is also a diminutive suffix Putra = son, putraka = little son).


I'm not certain what the Saucureans are trying to convince you
of..their made up 'rules' are fearsome and ever recursive..
But two different roots are involved here. The 'oi' root is different
than 'eka'.

This "oikos" appears to be a new contrivance (never mind that it
means "house" in Greek) intended to bring "eka" into line.

'Eka' does mean 'house' in Latvian too. Give the antiquity of Cla.
Greek and Latvian it probably only had that meaning.

If Latvian is a satem language, it's impossible for Latvian eka to be cognate with Greek
(w)oikos. The "k" comes from PIE k^ (palatal velar). Cognates of (w)oikos are Avestan vis-, Sanskrit vis'-, OCSlav vIsI, Latin vi:cus, Gothic weihs, Tocharian B ike.

The PIE root is *(H)oy, which together with the suffix -no became
oi-no > Latin unus, and with a different suffix -ka became IIr.
ai-ka > Skr. eka Joachim

Unfortunately *(H)oy is not corroborated anywhere, and so I have to
discard it as the probable source for any of those derivatives. It is
a false contention.

*H1ei- is well attested, with the meaning "this one" (Luvian is, "this one", Latin i:s, German es, Lithuanian jis, all "he" -- demonstrative > 3rd person pronoun is extremely common in the world's languages). H1oi-, in *H1oinos and H1oikos, is just the same root in o-grade. All that's pretty normal, and well accepted.

Instead, I believe that two more original roots words are involved.
Something like 'ains' (for the 'un' and 'ai' derivatives) -

And 'eku' for the 'ek' and 'oik' derivatives. A reflection of this
other 'ek' meaning can be seen in Latin 'hic' 'haec' 'hoc'..
..with an original meaning of 'this one'.

No. Latin <h-> does not correspond to a PIE laryngeal. It comes from *gh- or *g^h-. Latin hic, hoc, haec is said to be based on a PIE stem gho- or gheH3-, plus (in some of its cases) the emphatic particle -ce. (Note that there's no "c" in the genitive sing, and most plural cases.)

John

.

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