Re: elementary Sanskrit blunder by Harvard professor

On Sep 16, 10:19 pm, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Sep 15, 11:13 am, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
yeah right - one, three, five and nine are purely Indian but seven
alone got influenced by Hurrite.

First, third, fourth, fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth, ninth, and tenth
are purely Anglo-Saxon and second alone came from French. Once again you
are expressing strong and disdainful disbelief of a phenomenon that is
readily demonstrated to exist.

Because the place of "twoth" was already taken by "tooth"?

But interesting as this maybe - why should the only Mitanni form (from
amongst 1,3,5,7,9) that is undeniably MIA if it is IA be the only form
that was influenced by Hurrite?

It may be true - but simply asserting it isn't proof.

Simply questioning it isn't proof that it isn't.

When a speech
community is under the influence of more than one language - the form
chosen for a word from among different choices would never be through
an "eeney-meeny-miney-mo" mechanism.

Really? Why not? Because you used the words "would never"? Keep in mind
that once a language has several synonyms for each of a number of
related concepts, no one remembers any longer which words came from
which languages. So if the selection later comes to favor one word for
each of those concepts, there isn't any reason why it would be uniformly
down the line of language of origin.

I didn't say that.


Look at the mix-and-match nature of the basic color names among the
Romance languages. Seehttp://www.ielanguages.com/romlang.html#colors.


If the establishment had looked for it - reasons would have been found
why exactly the chosen forms were chosen (different substrate/adstrate
languages that produced a different final outcome?).

Any number of pre-existent forms
for related words (and also the need to fit in with pre-existing rules
of inflection) would affect the choice

Really? What pre-existing rules prevented the substitution of "second"
for the Anglo-Saxon word? Oh, wait, that's right, nothing prevented it.
There is no such barrier. (One might wonder how you think English has
ever absorbed any vocabulary from any language that has inflections
foreign to English.)

I forgot that there would have been a word like "twoth" before the
English encountered deuxieme (is second really from deuxieme?) and for
some reason (which I am sure can be found even now from attested
evidence) second fits in better with the whole language and displaced
the Anglo Saxon word.
.

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